Valuation of stock

This seems wrong. Book Cost of Debt should be the last resort, since there are practices of Capitalizing Interest payments and so on. GOI Bonds trade at 7.7%, so there is no way a company can issue Debt at 6.2%. If I had to guess, it would be closer to 10%, but please take a look at the Bond trading data from NSE and BSE to see if you can find a company’s Debt trading with a AA- Rating. Even if AA+ is available, take that and add 0.5%-1% to approximate for AA-.

In developed markets, you would find this data abundantly. In India, the Debt market is largely dominated by PSU Banks, with other Corporate Debt accounting for a smaller percentage. So, we will have to resort to a lot of assumptions.

Yes, this is correct. Just a small nitpick. Beta is not represented in percentage. It is a number. So it is ‘0.75’, not ‘0.75%’. You might have made a typo, I am not sure. But your calculation is correct.

If you do this with a 10% Cost of Debt, it would be around ~11.50%. Do check that one out.

Screener defines ‘Capital Invested’ as investments in the Net Block alone (At least that is how their RoCE formula works). I personally define these things in the following way:

Capital Invested = Equity + Reserves + Debt + Change in Working Capital - Liquid Cash

Change in Working Capital = Current year’s (Non-cash Current Assets - Non-debt Current Liabilities) - Last years’ (Non-cash Current Assets - Non-debt Current Liabilities)

EBIT = PBT + Interest - Other Income (Only if it is non-business activities)

So, put together, I calculate ROCE as:

ROCE = (PBT + Interest - Other Income) / (Equity + Reserves + Debt + (Current year’s (Non-cash Current Assets - Non-debt Current Liabilities) - Last years’ (Non-cash Current Assets - Non-debt Current Liabilities)) - Liquid Cash)

This may sound unnecessary and it is often not far from Screener’s definition for Manufacturing firms. But as you move in to Service firms, my definition is usually more consistent (Ex: Try calculating CARE Ratings’ ROCE using Screener’s definition and my definition).

Absolutely. Cost of Capital does go down with an increase in Debt. If you take any Corporate Finance textbook, Capital Allocation will have its own chapter. However, persistent high Debt is usually dangerous, especially when the company is going through a down cycle. Consider reading this article by Prof. Damodaran to understand more about this.

I think Debt up to 50% normally or even 100% during expansionary phases are completely fine and even value accrective to shareholders. But they should to kept in control, especially during down cycles. Even excellent businesses like Hatsun had to take a reality check and issue Equity capital in replacement for Debt capital, knowing fully well that their Cost of Capital will increase. Too much Debt is just a ticking time bomb.

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Cost of Debt is the expected Cost of Long Term Debt which is used in computing WACC. WACC is used in discounting the future cash flows to arrive at intinsic value. The Cost of Debt should be the Cost of Debt of the Currency in which the Company is being Valued.

The Cost of Debt is Pre-tax and in Nominal terms is measured as follows:

Real Interest Rate + Expected Inflation Rate + Default Spread.

The Real Interest Rate is the rate of interest an investor or lender receives (or expects to receive) after factoring inflation. It can be described more formally by the Fisher equation, which states that the real interest rate is approximately the Nominal Interest Rate minus the Inflation Rate

Expected Inflation is the Expected Inflation Rate of the Currency during the forecast period. It is normally built in to the Risk Free Rate.

A Risk Free Rate is a rate of return on Investment with no risk or financial loss. This is a Bond Treasury Rate issued by the government. Risk Free Rate varies from country to country and from currency to currency.

Risk Free Rate = Real Interest Rate + Expected Inflation.

Default Spread is the difference between the Cost of Debt to the borrower and the Risk Free Rate. (Credits:- https://www.covalue.io/discounted-cash-flow-valuation-faqs.html)

Hello sir
An some one explain the economic profit model with examples… thanks

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Continuing this conversation here, because this thread is more relevant.

One of my biggest pet peeves when it comes to the topic of valuation (Especially in the context of Indian Equities) is that people who defend astronomical valuations in ‘Quality companies’ almost always quote terrible, questionable and/or companies with poor economics as the antithesis.

I would like to argue vehemently that whenever someone (Well, at least me personally) points out that XYZ company is overvalued, we not saying that the alternative approach is buying any company below 10 P/E. That is not how valuations work.

Here’s my 2 cents on this topic. This was posted as an answer on Quora first. But I will re-post it here because sometimes Quora answers get taken down for weird reasons.

The Parimutuel System as Explained by Charlie Munger

A prominent question many people have about investing in stocks is, “Does the purchase price matter?” or “Should I value a stock before purchasing it”?

Financial theory argues that you shouldn’t. They say, markets are always efficient in pricing securities and you should rather worry about decreasing frictional costs like brokerage charges, transaction charges, churn costs and so on. But Mr. Charlie Munger, the business partner of the world’s richest investor Mr. Warren Buffett, has a different answer:

It was always clear to me that the stock market couldn’t be perfectly efficient, because, as a teenager, I’d been to the racetrack in Omaha where they had the pari-mutuel system. And it was quite obvious to me that if the ‘house take’, the croupier’s take, was seventeen percent, some people consistently lost a lot less than seventeen percent of all their bets, and other people consistently lost more than seventeen percent of all their bets.

So the pari-mutuel system in Omaha had no perfect efficiency. And so I didn’t accept the argument that the stock market was always perfectly efficient in creating rational prices. The stock market is the same way – except that the house handle is so much lower.

If you take transaction costs – the spread between the bid and the ask plus the commissions – and if you don’t trade too actively, you’re talking about fairly low transaction costs. So that, with enough fanaticism and enough discipline, some of the shrewd people are going to get way better results than average in the nature of things.

It is not a bit easy…But some people will have an advantage. And in a fairly low transaction cost operation, they will get better than average results in stock picking. To us, investing is the equivalent of going out and betting against the pari-mutuel system. We look for a horse with one chance in two of winning and which pays you three to one. You’re looking for a mispriced gamble. That’s what investing is. And you have to know enough to know whether the gamble is mispriced. That’s value investing.

Charlie Munger (USCB, 2003).

Interesting. So, what’s ‘Parimutuel Betting‘?

Let’s say that you are about to bet $100 on a Horse Race. A total of ten horses are participating in the race and you are given the following statistics:

You are told that 100 people have laid down their bets (Let’s call them the ‘Horse Market’) and the total pool of bets is $4,050. Indirectly, you can assess how these 100 people have determined the probability of winning, or ‘Odds’ of winning, for each of these horses. In fact, Horse #6 seems to be an overwhelming favorite, with $1,700 bet for the horse.

But before blindly betting on Horse #6, you need to understand the most important thing about Parimutuel Betting. If Horse #6 indeed wins, everyone who bet on Horse #6 will get $4,050 i.e. Everyone will make roughly 2 times of their bet amount (For convenience, let’s just say the remaining 0.38 times is participation fee). Is that good?

Hold your horses (Pun intended)!

If you bet on Horse #5 or Horse #9 instead, you can make 81 times the money, instead of the paltry 2 times. Well, well, now is this a better bet? Logically speaking, these horses have had a very little bet on them because they may be poor to begin with. The 100 gamblers already know this. That’s why only 1-2 of them have placed bets for these horses.

Wait, this is confusing. Which horse should I bet on now? Let’s recount the statement made by Mr. Charlie Munger:

“We look for a horse with one chance in two of winning and which pays you three to one. You’re looking for a mispriced gamble.”

A mispriced gamble . That’s where the trick lies. To summarize Mr. Munger’s thought process:

  1. You shouldn’t bet blindly on Horse #6, because you will only make only 2 times the money, the lowest reward of the lot. Even when Horse #6 can be deemed the healthiest horse with the most skilled jockey, the payout is simply too low.
  2. You shouldn’t bet blindly on Horses #5 or #9, even though they have an astronomical payout of 81 times. It is more likely that Horses #5 or #9 could be sick/weak or their jockeys inexperienced.
  3. The sweet spot, therefore, is in a bet where you think there’s mispricing i.e. A bet where the ‘Odds’ have been miscalculated by the Horse Market people. Take Horse #1 for instance. The Odds here are 8:1 i.e. The Horse Market people think there’s only a 12.50% (1/8) Probability of this horse winning. If you believe that these Odds are somehow way wrong i.e. If you believe that this horse actually has a 25% (1/4) Probability of winning, then you should consider betting on this one. Of course, you should repeat this exercise for all the horses and figure out which one has the most mispriced Odds and bet on that one.

Sounds simple enough? Horse Betting is decidedly more complex than this. However, it proves to be an interesting lesson in investing. This system of Parimutuel Betting, Mr. Munger argues, also applies to the Stock Market. I would personally visualize it like this:

To put it in a words, then:

  1. You shouldn’t invest blindly in the well-known, excellent company. Although these type of companies have the lowest probability of making a Capital Loss (i.e. Chance of not achieving the Average Returns) over the long term, they also have a low, 15% returns. Put together, they have an Expected Returns of 12%, which is neither too high, nor too low.
  2. You shouldn’t invest blindly in the unknown, terrible company. Although these type of companies can become potential ‘multi-baggers’ over the long term, clocking a CAGR of 23%, they also come with a high 50% risk of a potential Capital Loss. Put together, they have an Expected Returns of 11.50%, the lowest of the lot.
  3. The sweet spot, therefore, could be in the lesser-known, mediocre companies. These type of companies offer a decent 18% CAGR over the long term and also come with a moderate, 30% Capital Loss probability. Put together, they have an Expected Returns of 12.60%, the highest of the lot.

Of course, this is just an example and the numbers are all assumed. There are thousands of Stocks listed around the world and there might very well be numerous permutations and combinations of this in action at any given time. Instead of the 100 people from our horse betting example, the Stock Market consists of millions of people. They are pricing the odds for a stock every moment a trade is executed. It is an investor’s job to figure out the most mispriced bet.

Just remember . You don’t make the most money-per-risk-taken by betting on the most favorite gamble. And you don’t make the most money-per-risk-taken by betting on the least favorite gamble, either. You make the most money-per-risk-taken by betting on the gamble where the odds are highly mispriced.

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Confused!! Does fair price valuation matter for “consistent compounders with compounding free cash flows”?
I have heard in the webinars of a PMS that the CMP doesn’t matter as long as the free cash flow compounds at a healthy rate( >20%) and there is a high re-investment rate ex-dividend payout. Their stocks have really high PEs. Should those be considered purely growth stocks?
I am a novice in this field, trying to learn the basics of the trade. Many thanks

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To help you find an answer to your question, I will quote an investor who is a popular proponent of buying high quality businesses.

“No matter how wonderful it (business) is, it’s not worth an infinite price. So we have to have a price that makes sense and gives a margin of safety considering the natural vicissitudes of life.”

– Charlie Munger

Valuation matters even for the greatest of businesses and overpaying for the same, may prove costly.

Growth is also a part of the value calculation. Ceteris paribus, a high growth firm deserves a higher valuation than a low growth firm. Nevertheless, even for high growth firms, there is a reasonable price ceiling, beyond which, you might not have much margin of safety left (even if the firm grows at it’s maximum potential).

The fund manager you are referring to is notorious for shunning the age-old, time-tested principles of value investing. I am nobody to judge if he is right or wrong, but I would rather prefer an investment philosophy which has proven to be successful over the long term, than that advocated by an underperforming fund manager.

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Most of the market is moved by bigmoney. They should have better information than retail investors.

Value, then will be in good companies in temporary problems in company or sector or world. Or in obscure companies.

Median PE may not be relevant as rating may change due to conditions. Eg: Tata elxsi, Ltts.

Comparison with similar companies may not be accurate as market may give more value to better companies. Eg: Asian vs Berger paints.

Good Company, Growing eps/fcf, price fall due to temporary problem - buy

Good Company, stagnant eps/fcf and price fall due to temporary problem - buy

Good Company, growing eps/fcf, price stable/rising

  • hold

Good Company, stagnant eps/fcf due to temporary problem, price stable/rising - hold

Good Company, any trend in eps/fcf, permanent problem - sell

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Many thanks for your detailed explanation.